Cardiovascular system 3 Easy and simple questions in human diseases (pathology) of cardiovascular system Omneya published on August 31, 2018 Stacked 1/36 The commonest cause of congenital heart disease is.. A. Multifactorial inheritance B. Sex linked inheritance C. Maternal infection D. Maternal hypertension E. Maternal rubella 2/36 In preterm neonates, the commonest congenital cardiac lesion is A. VSD B. PDA C. ASD D. Falit tetralogy E. Complex defect 3/36 One of the following is not consistent with the arthritis of rheumatic fever.. A. Dramatically response to aspirin B. Has migration fashion C. Usually involves big joint D. Commonly affects small joint E. Causes damage to joint 4/36 The commonest valve suspected to damage in rhematic fever is A. Pulmonary valve B. Aortic valve C. Tricuspid valve D. Mitiral valve E. Both pulmonary and aortic valve 5/36 Which of the following is not affected by the preload in the heart muscle.. A. End systolic volume B. End diastolic volume C. Stroke volume D. Ejection fraction E. Cardiac output 6/36 Ventricular pressure is higher than the atrial pressure in all phases of the cardiac cycle except in A. Isometric contraction phase B. Atrial systole phase C. Maximum ejection phase D. Reduced ejection phase E. Isovolumetric relaxation 7/36 The earliest significant in atheroma is called A. Afatty streak B. Fibrous fatty plaque C. Thrombus E. Fibrous cap 8/36 What is the primordial prevention of cardiovascular disease.. A. Control of risk factors of CVD like hypertension, smoking B. Control of cardiovascular disease to control complications and further deterioration C. Prevention of appearance of risk factors D. Prevention of death and rehabilitation E. All methods are correct 9/36 What is high risk strategies A. The high risk strategy concern about secondary prevention B. Its aim to bring preventive care to individuals at special risk C. It target entire population D. Seek small change in the highly prevalent risk factor E. Concern with primary prevention 10/36 The best feature that describes right side heart failre A. Sacral edema B. Raised JVP C. Hepatomegaly D. Ascites E. Lower limbs edema 11/36 The best initial investigation for heart failure is.. A. Chest radiography B. Electrocardiogram C. Echocardiograph D. Thyroid function E. Complete blood count 12/36 In restructive cardiomyopathy A. The ejection fraction is reduced B. Myocardial infarction is a cause C. There is left ventricular diastolic dysfunction D. Peripartum cardiomyopathy is a cause E. Is treated surgicaly 13/36 A 45 years old diabetic patient presented with BP 150/90 your plan is.. A. Start life style modification for 2 months B. Start drug treatment immediately C. Use combination of ACE and ARBS. D. Target for control is 140/90 E. Do 24 hours BP monitoring 14/36 A 50 years old smoker presented with ECG showed ST depression, troponin was -ve his diagnosis is.. A. ST elevation MI B. Non ST elevation MI C. Unstable angina D. Stable angina E. Acute pericarditis 15/36 The best modality to image the heart is.. A. Chest X-Ray B. Electrocardiogram C. Electrocardiograph D. Isotope E. CT scan chest 16/36 Which of the following is not a feature of poly arteritis nodosa.. A. It is a disease of young adults B. Associated strongly with HBsAg C. Biopsy is important in diagnosis D. Serum antineutrophil antibody is positive E. It does not affect the glomeruli and pulmonary vessels 17/36 The following are risk factors for infective endocarditis, Except.. A. Aortic aneurysm B. Rheumatic heart disease C. Congenital heart disease D. Prosthetic valve E. Intravenous drug abuse 18/36 Regarding aortic dissection, which is most correct A. Is generalized dilitation of the vessels wall B. Atherosclerosis is not a cause C. Cystic medial degeneration D. Common in the thoracic aorta E. There is no association with marfan's syndrome 19/36 A 50 years old lady with HTN and chronic kidney disease. Her target for BP control is A. 130/80 B.140/90 C.140/85 D. 150/90 E. 120/80 20/36 Which of the following is not a cause of left ventricular hypertrophy A. Aortic stenosis B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C. Hypertension D. Tricuspid regurgitation E. Amilodosis 21/36 In constrictive pericarditis A. The BP is low B. There is pericardial effusion C. JVP is raised D. It occurs 48 hr after effusion E. It treated with aspiration of fluid 22/36 The anginal pain is characterized by the following, except.. A. Retrosternal pain B. Increased by effort C. Stabbing (like a knife) in nature D. Radiates to the neck and upper arm E. Relived by rest 23/36 (pediatric)... In X-Ray for heart size all are true except A. C is cardiac diameter B. T is thoracic diameter C. If C/T is 50% and and below heart size is normal D. If C/T is more than 50% heart size is enlarged E. In pediatric if C/T is up to 60% heart size is enlarged 24/36 The sign that indicates right venticular hypertrophy is A. Tapping apex beat B. Left para sternal heave C. Loud firist heart sound D. Pericardial rub E. Basal crepitation 25/36 The following is not a cause of dialated cardiomyopathy A. Post partum cardiomyopathy B. Idiopathic cardiomyopathy C. Alcoholic cardiomyopathy D. Left ventricular hypertrophy E. Viral myocarditis 26/36 In pericardial tambonade, the patient can present with all the following Except A. Raised JVP B. Hypertension C. Loud heart sounds D. Cardiomegaly E. Lower limb swelling 27/36 A 50 years old lady known hypertensive and diabetic presents with acute myocardial infraction and develops shock, this type of shock is called A. Neuorogenic shock B. Septic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Hypovolumic shock E. Obstructive shock 28/36 Tenstion pneumothorax causes shock by A. Hypoxia due to lung collapse B. Reduce venous return to the heart C. Hemorrhage D. Pain E. Anxiety 29/36 The commonest site for the development of deep vein thrombosis is the A. Calf B. Renal veins C. Portal vein D. Biceps muscle E. Glutal muscle 30/36 The following are signs of acute limb ischemia, except A. Paralysis B. Pain C. Pursing D. Pulse less E. Paraethesia 31/36 Venosus ulcer almost always develops in the A. Sole of the foot B. Tip of fingers C. Area above the medial maleolous D. Tibialtuberousity E. Elbow joint 32/36 Regarding acute rheumatic fever which of the following is not true A. Male and females are equally affected B. Common age between 5 to 15 years C. Acute arthritis typically affects large joint like the kner D. Aschoff bodies are uncommon histological features E. Genetically associated with HLA DR class 2 allels 33/36 Wargenr's granulomatous is charecterized bu all of the following, Except.. A. Granulomatous of the upper and lower respiratory tract B. Generalised vasculitis C. Glomerulonephritis D. Positive ANA E. Positive ANCA 34/36 Regarding rheumatic fever all of the following are true Except A. Occurs 1-4 weeks after streptococcal infection B. Due to host anti streptococcal antibodies that are cross reactive to cardiac tissue C. Death is most frequent due to pharangitis D. Cause fibrous thickening of the valve leaflets E. Jones criteria are used for diagnostic purposes 35/36 Regarding thrombo antigitis oblitrans (Buerger's disease) all of the following are true, Except A. Often affects tibial and radial arteries B. Is associated with cigarette smoking C. There is no neural involvment D. Charecterized by granulomatous information and thrombi central micro abscess E. Complicated by ulcers and gangrene 36/36 The following are major risk factors for ischemic heart disease, Except A. Cigarette smoking B. Hyperchlostrolemia C. Hypertension D. Diabetes insipidus E. Male sex
